Fabulous Question From a Website Follower

This description comes from Wikipedia:

Sexual violence is any sexual act, attempt to obtain a sexual act, unwanted sexual comments or  advances, or acts to traffic, or otherwise directed against a person’s sexuality using coercion, by any person regardless of their relationship to the victim, in any setting. It includes rape, defined as the physically forced or otherwise coerced penetration of the vulva or anus with a penis, other body part or object.[22]

Many of the risk factors for sexual violence are the same as for domestic violence. Risk factors specific to sexual violence perpetration include beliefs in family

Violence is the intentional use of physical force or power, threatened or actual, against a person, or against a group or community, that either results in or has a high likelihood of resulting in injury, death, psychological harm, maldevelopment or deprivation.[2] This definition associates intentionality with the committing of the act itself, irrespective of the outcome it produces.

From the above definitions, one can tell that actual touch is not even needed for a violation to occur.  In my book I comment about what Dr. Bradshaw wrote, that if a parent undresses in front of his child, the child is violated if the parent is enjoying the act of undressing themselves with the child watching.  If nothing of the sort is going on in the parent’s mind, the child is safe.

Jesus refers to such a concept.  Consider Matthew 5:27&28.  “You have heard that it was said, YOU SHALL NOT COMMIT ADULTERY; but I say to you, that every one who looks on a woman to lust for her has committed adultery with her already in his heart.” (New American Standard)

Yes, you are write brave ‘question asker’, any kind of violation has done damage to the brain.

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